Re: Naziism and Islam have some telling similarities and differences

Submitted by Julio Alvarado (Guatemala), Mar 15, 2008 at 16:45

Hello,

Thank you for nominating my comment to the strangest comments list. I know it was a little off the point as donvan pointed out. For one, I am happy that you found out that Samaritans claim to be descendants of Israel. This should be possible to prove now-a-days using DNA analysis.

I noticed you you spelled out Naziism with a double 'i'. I did not know this before. Thanks.

Regarding your comments, I wanted to share my opinion regarding how 'evil' Islam seems, when it is really 'openly evil' which Naziism is/was not.

I came to this conclusion because of the use of occultism in Naziism which was broadcasted on the discovery channel on TV. Islam does not have this type of occultism behind it because the language itself is immune to alteration just as Hebrew is. German is a more technical language because of its inflection.

I think that to a person whose biased in the english language which is prone to ambiguity, the resulting analysis of the Mus'lam personality disorder is misdiagnosed. An analogy comes to mind. Can a german psychologist make a valid diagnosis for a patient whose language is not his own? Can they understand each other by other means but through language in order to make a suitable judgment?

The psychologist must first jump over the language barrier and then make a judgment of whether the 'patient' has a disorder or not. If that patient is German and the psychologist is English, there would still exist a language barrier but not as inhibiting as it is between the Muslim and the German.

Does this mean that actions speak louder than words? Yes. Does it seem that all or most muslims are taking extreme actions against non-muslims? No. Hence, that is why I thought at first the comparison between the two (Muslims and Nazis) as mediocre (no offense intended): ALL nazis were taking extreme actions against non-nazis. Yet I still believe that it was a rational response to something.. my guess is that it has something to do with WWI and Zionism.

Once again, one must understand a language's origin in order to make a valid judgment/diagnosis. I know that hebrew and arabic had no 'babel' origins. I can then assume that german, english, yiddish, and chinese (even), had origins from other more simple languages that were created in babel. Do you understand what I am saying?

I know plenty of people (serial killers, pedophiles, etc/)who do worst atrocities than Muslims and they did them in Texas. Does that make Texans evil? Does that make me evil?

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