Not really?

Submitted by Francisco Santaella (Spain), Dec 19, 2011 at 05:57

You are right... there is no more proof than of the actual happening of the slap. What was significant to me is that the court finding happened after the uprising succeeded. But, at the end, you are right no proof one way or the other. And, real or imaginary, it already has produced its effects. My inclination though: the slapping never took place, although the humiliation was probably constant.

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