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Another difference between Jewish and Muslim approach to application of religious laws.

Reader comment on item: The Difference between Shari'a and Halakhah

Submitted by prashant (United States), Nov 1, 2013 at 02:48

Dear Dr Pipes,

You correctly pointed out that Jews apply their religious laws to themselves (if at all) and not to others but Muslims want to apply their laws to everyone. The differences do not end there though. I see some other differences:

1) The demands of New York's haredim jews are quite localized. If you get hold of another Jewish person in Los Angeles or Jerusalem, you can count on him to be indifferent or objective about the demands of the demand in New York. On the other hand, if Muslims demand something in New York and you wake up another Muslim in Pakistan in the middle of the night and tell him about it, you can count on the fact that he will immediately extend his support to the New York demand.

2) If you decline the request of the New York Jews, the sky will not all. No one will scream discrimination and street riots will not break in Jerusalem. You cannot be so sure about the Muslim societies.

3) I doubt that the heredim jews of New York believe that, inshaallah, whole of America will become Jewish eventually. So even if their demands are granted and implemented, they are no threat to other parts of the society.

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Reader comments (2) on this item

Title Commenter Date Thread
2Another difference between Jewish and Muslim approach to application of religious laws. [211 words]prashantNov 1, 2013 02:48211118
Robert Spencer - 'Did Mohammed exist?' [287 words]Chris heathjOct 21, 2013 17:04210852

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