Jesus in the Qur'an and it is not very pretty

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Dec 26, 2013 at 12:06

Dr. Pipes

The Qur'an as usual in the case of Jesus is all over the map. The tradition tells us that Muhammad told Thabit (the Jewish young man who was his scribe or may assistant) to learn Syriac because Muhammad had Makhtatat bi lughat al-Syrian read this as books written in Syriac and that it took Thabit 17 days to learn Syriac ( we are told that Thabit was a Jew which means that his first language would have been Syro-Aramiac) so all he had to do was to learn the Syriac Abgad (alphabet) and this is why it took only 17 days so if this story is true Muhammad would have had access to Syriac texts including the Gnostic texts

And yes Arabic Abgad is from Syriac Abgad (alphabet) and you judge for yourself

ܐܒܓܕ ܗܘܙ ܚܛܝ ܟܠܡܢ ܣܥܦܨ ܩܪܫܬ or Abgad Hawas Huti Kalamon S3fis Qrsht and this is the Syriac alphabet in order

And in Arabic it is ابجد هوز حتي كلمن سعفص قرشت or Abgad hawas Huti Kalamon S3fis Qrsht which is not the Arabic alphabet in order which means that even something as basic as Abgad was from Syriac

There is no doubt that the Arabic alphabet is derived from Syriac alphabet

We are also told that Muhammad told his followers that they must learn Syriac in-order to learn about the prophets and about Jesus

Now let us see what the Qur'an says

1. Jesus was conceived by Allah breathing his soul in the vagina of Mary and that Jesus is Kalimat Allah or the word of Allah

2. Jesus cured the leper and restored vision to the blind which would have been miracles in 7th century Arabia and he was able to speak while he was still in the cradle!

3. Jesus was able to tell the future which according to the Qur'an is a thing that only God can do and now you draw your own conclusion

4. Jesus was able to raise the dead and only Allah can do that again you draw your own conclusion

5. Yes the Qur'an says that Jesus cannot do any of the above only BiidhinAllah or Allah has to give him permission but if you read Qur'an 2:213 http://www.danielpipes.org/comments/195984 it is clear that Allah asks a permission from himself just like Jesus would yes it does not make sense but you draw your own conclusion

6. Now if we turn to Q19:30 the speaker is Jesus this really means that if we are to believe Muslims and there is indeed an eternal al-Lawh al-Mahfouz then Jesus always existed and he is one of the authors of the Qur'an!

7. If you read Q4:157-159 we have the claim that Jesus was not killed or put on the cross and that Allah Rafa3ahu or he lifted him up which means that he did not die on the cross but it does not mean that he did not die

8. Now if you read Q97 or surat al-Qadr Luxenberg proves beyond doubt that if we are to read it in its Syriac form then the Qur'an must be talking about the Nativity

And indeed the exegesis of Q97 is confused and confusing and al-Tabari realized that this sura does not make sense but some how a link must be established with the life of Muhammad

9. Now if we turn to Q72:18-19 and as was proven by Luxenberg then we have the following

72:18 وان المسجد لله فلا تدعوا مع الله احدا

The word al-masjid was read as plural al-Masajid and I suspect that if it was left as singular as one would find in the Qur'an than there would have been another problem and that is which Masjid is that so one can read it as: And the places of prostrations are for God therefore do not call upon anyone else but Allah which is very clusmy Arabic now if we are to read the word al-Masjid in its Syriac from then it would be ܡܣܓܕ and if this is from a garshuni text then the Arabic would be مسجد which is the word you find in the above verse but Syriac ܡܣܓܕ is not Arabic مسجد but it is Arabic سجود or prostration so now let us change the above verse

وان السجود لله فلا تدعوا مع الله احدا

Or and truly prostration is for God therefore do not call upon anyone else but Allah

Now it makes lots of sense

Now this would help us in reading the next verse

Q72:19 وانه لما قام عبد الله يدعوه كادوا يكونون عليه لبدا

Or and when the slave of Allah stood up to call upon him they (the people) almost became upon him Libadan (I left this last word untranslated because it does not have a meaning)

Which really means that this aya has no meaning

In Quranic exegesis no one had a clue what this aya really means and what does the last word in the aya really means because there is no Arabic word called لبدا

And this is what Luxenberg is suggesting

1. The word Qama or قام should be from Syriac ܩܡ or he did rise (from the dead) and indeed in Arabic Easter is عيد القيامة or Eid al-Qiyama and in Arabic the last day is called Yum al-Qiyama or the day of the standing

2. The term Abd Allah or the slave/servant of Allah or عبد الله is really Jesus after all it says in Q19:30 قال اني عبد الله or (Jesus said) I'm Abd Allah

3. The word Labada can be read as Syriac ܥܒܕܐ or I3bada instead ܠܒܕܐ or Libada and indeed it was not unusual that Syriac sribes used to mix the letters ܠ or lam and ܥ or Ayin now the word ܠܒܕܐ should be read as ܥܒܙܐ or in Arabic عبدا or Ibadan

Now let us read the verse now in its corrected form

وانه لما قام عبد الله يدعوه كادوا يكونون عليه عبدا

Or and when the servant/slave of God was RESURRECTED at the same time calling him (to continue to worship God) they (the people) would almost have worshipd him as God

et Voila Resurrection makes it to the Qur'an

The moral of the story here is Muhammad was a poor theologian and we really do not know what the Qur'an is really saying so what should we expect from the likes of Mr Hooper?

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