Judea-Samaria vs West Bank

Submitted by Jerome Verlin (United States), Feb 11, 2014 at 17:44

Thanks for responding to my comment. The UN partition resolution's significance is that it USED "the hill country of Samaria and Judea," the historically used names, not "West Bank," which Jordan had not yet invented. The entire "huge paragraph," replete with "it" and "the boundary," referring back to "the boundary of the hill country of Samaria and Judea," refers to a significant, not microscopic, area, the area of initial Israelite presence.

The usage today has the two sides' partisans using "Judea and Samaria" and "the West Bank" referring to essentially the same region, captured by invading Jordan in the 1948 war. Ettinger is right that even the Turks and British used "Judea and Samaria" and that Jordan renamed it "West Bank" to disassociate it from Jews.

You are so important in our effort to make the Jewish homeland case to the world. I urge you to look on "West Bank" as a loaded delegitimizing expression, like the others your original article cited.

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