Infanticide in the antique and late antique world and teaching our dear Sheila the historical truth

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Feb 20, 2014 at 09:32

For the readers our dear Sheila needs to do her home work before posting and is this asking for much our dear Sheila?

Islam needed to be reestablished at the time of the Prophet you were burying female baby and you had no respect for humanity.

You see Sheila you do not seem to be aware that infanticide was a wide spread practice in the ancient world of Rome and Greece and Egypt and more females than males were the subject of this evil practice and surprise surprise this came to an end in the Middle East around the 4th century or some 200-300 years before the arrival of the so called prophet of Islam the religion of the arabs only and guess why Sheila? Because both Christianty and Judaism prohibited it (this is not unlike the prohibition on abortion by let us say the Catholics)

And indeed by the early 2nd century CE the population of the pagan Roman Empire was declining and the population started to rise again after the widespeard conversion to Christianity and due to the fact that the Jewish population of the Roman Empire at the time was around 10% and both religions prohibited such practice

So why did the pagan world practice infanticide? The answer is it was a form of birth control and because parents were concerned that children will be an extra mouth to feed and because parents believed that children can bring shame to their parents (see al-Qurtubi)

So you need to read this Sheila

http://news.discovery.com/history/roman-infanticide-didnt-spare-either-sex-140126.htm

And as a matter of fact infanticide in ancient Rome did not spare males

And here is why infanticide was a thing of the past by the 7th century and not because of Muhammad and his Qur'an but because of the widespread Christianity and the fact that 10% of the population was Jewish and all the prophet of Islam did was to plagiarize the prohibition of infanticide and here read this

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infanticide

For the readers the verses about infanticide in the Qur'an belong to the ancient part of the Qur'an as in case of Q81-7-8 and this must have been written in a milieu where such practice was already prohibited not because Muhammad or his Allah said so but because of Jewish as well as Christian prohibition of infanticide

Oh next? I will tell you what the book of Allah says and what al-Tabari and al-Qurtubi say about infanticide and you will be surprised

How come you did not know all of this Sheila you tell me

---

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".