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Can a Free People vote in a Shar'i Order?Reader comment on item: Can a Free People Vote in a Shar‘i Order? Submitted by Jack Donaldson (United States), Mar 17, 2007 at 12:53 No, because the Shar'i law dictates that the Muslim is under the authority of the local Imam. Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments". Reader comments (3) on this item
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