Reply to frustrated Indian

Submitted by Gary R. White (United States), May 15, 2008 at 17:55

While the concept of zero as a mathematical representation was, indeed, the original product of Hindu culture, the West became familiar with it by way of contact with Arab cultures. I would seriously consider the possibility that a representation that "the West got zero from the Muslims," was transmuted into "the Muslims invented zero," for purposes exaggerating ethnic chauvinism.

In any case, how many of you learned in school that movable type was developed by Gutenberg in Europe during the 15th Century and not by Bi Sheng (Chinese) in the 10th? What's next, a denial of the Rape of Nanking or the Opium Wars?

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".