Q for D. Pipes re Muslim juridical sources on slavery

Submitted by medieval historian (United States), Jan 4, 2011 at 16:25

Exactly which juridical sources say that enslavement in Muslim-ruled lands is impermissible and what are their dates? I have read many, many of the primary sources (literary, papyrological, etc.) of the Middle East c. 634-1300 and these sources refer often to slaves who clearly were enslaved in Muslim-ruled territory by Muslim elites. Coptic sources especially (History of the Patriarches of Alexandria, John of Nikiu, many of the papryri) from 640-ca. 900 AD refer to Copts, and especially Coptic children frequently being enslaved by Muslims. If there was no enslavement supposedly permitted in Muslim-ruled lands why did in fact so much enslavement take place there? Why were Christians so frequently enslaved in Muslim lands, and remained enslaved there?.

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