Marmara etc

Submitted by the Grand Infidel of Kaffiristan (Australia), Sep 28, 2011 at 18:51

re: the Marmara debacle. The question really is - do Israeli troops - sent to intercept a boat which clearly intended to breach Israeli waters - when coming under attack with METAL BARS and other implements by groups of irrational people who declare they are willing to become 'martyrs' (for their idiotic cause) - do those troops , in fear for their lives, have a legal write to use lethal force in self-defence?.

"The right of self-defense (according to U.S. law) (also called, when it applies to the defense of another, alter ego defense, defense of others, defense of a third person) is the right for civilians acting on their own behalf to engage in violence for the sake of defending one's own life or the lives of others, including the use of deadly force."

" The general criminal law allows for the use of deadly force anytime a faultless victim reasonably believes that unlawful force which will cause death or grievous bodily harm is about to be used on him. "

"..... the right of self-defense will not be available to one who has substantially encouraged or provoked an attack. ....One of the circumstances which helps to determine the level of threat encountered by the victim is the nature of the assailant's weapon (if any). As a general rule, anything which might be used to kill a person, no matter how odd, is considered a deadly weapon. Thus, a chair, a lamp or a screwdriver may all be considered deadly weapons. "

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