Victims of the Arabs and their imperialism

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Feb 2, 2014 at 10:25

Our dear Av really have no answers now I have a few questions for you our dear Av

1. Why did your Hindu ancestors convert to Islam? Let me guess it cannot be because they read the Qur'an and fell in love with islam and the rest is history as a quick google search reveals that the first translation of the Qur'an into Urdu was made by a certain Shah Rafi Un Din in 1776 which means that for almost 1000 years after the invasion of India by your Arab masters converts to Islam in India did not have a text written in their language right? So you tell me how can anyone convert to a religion without reading what its holy book says or does not say?

2. Unless your ancestors were forced to convert to Islam or be killed as per ayat al-sayf or Q9:5 and I do not blame them so is this why your ancestors convert to Islam our dear Av? And this is what your Arab masters call: Islam Taslam or become a Muslims and you will be safe (read this as not killed as per Q9:5)

3. Or your ancestors were bribed in-order to convert to Islam because your Allah says in Q9:60 that Muslims should bribe yes bribe non Muslims so they convert to Islam! So were your ancestors bribed and this is why they converted to Islam? And why would your Allah ask Muslims to bribe non Muslims so they convert to islam unless he is not omnipotent so is Allah not omnipotent? What is the matter with him?

4. And are you an Arzal after all you cannot be an Ashraf because your ancestors were Hindus right our dear Av and so much for brotherhood in Islam

5. How come your Allah is silent about Hinduism and Buddhism and jainism the religions of your ancestors? Could it be because Allah is an Arabian deity? And no you will not find the name of Krishna mentioned in the Qur'an after all how come the likes of al-Tabari were not aware of this claim?

6. How come the Qur'an was not revealed in Urdu? what is wrong with Urdu our dear Av?

7. Your so called Allah claims to be a Rahman wa Raheem and that he pre-plans everything then how come he allowed the murder of millions of your Hindu ancestors? Could it be because he is evil? or could it be because he is unable to stop al-Shytan even in his revelations to the so called prophets? Whic means that the Shaytan is omnipotent and your so called Allah is not! Oh you do not believe me? Then read Surat al-Hajj 52 or 22:52 and it seems that as per al-Tabari this is why Muhammad recited al-Ayat al-Shaytaniyya (Satanic verses in Surat al-Nijm) so do you think that ayat al-sayf the aya that can be blamed for the murder of millions of Hidnus is really another aya Shaytaniyya after all how can the God of the universe ask his followers to kill in his name and then call himself Rahman wa Raheem? and more evidence that the Qur'an cannot be the words of a real God

I feel sorry for you and even your Arab masters regard your likes and other Ahamdees as non Muslims right our dear Av?

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