why is this bill even needed?

Submitted by John Krupa (United States), May 28, 2016 at 20:36

is it not already possible, within the USA legal system, for a USA citizen to sue any party whoever/whatever/wherever that other party may be ... regardless of whether said party is a non-USA entity? [getting a measure of satisfaction for any such successful suit, whether in whole or in part, is a separate question.]

if indeed true, then what "value added" does this bill --- as flawed as it now appears to be --- bring to the arena for those who find themselves aggrieved?

if a USA citizen cannot bring about any such lawsuit i then ask: for what reason is that? in what way are they precluded from doing so.

kindest regards to all freeborn citizens ... and especially those who continue to live free and work with others to do so.

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