Semantics

Submitted by Vijay (United Kingdom), Apr 11, 2006 at 05:36

>Submitted by Octavio Johanson, Apr 9, 2006 at 17:42

>I have gone out of my way to avoid confrontation with Harrak, to no avail. People like Harrak >and Baneeskhan believe in the totalitarian ideology of Militant Islam. They will never change. >They cannot change. In his last replay, Mr. Harrak taunted me by saying that the Iranians >cannot be anti-Semitic, because they are Semites themselves.

There is a lot of confusion in Harrak's thinking because in his hurry to score points he does not think. There are no 'Semites'. There are only semitic languages. 'Semitic' as an adjective applies only to languages or language groupings, and inapplicable to people. Even considering language, language of Iran i.e. Persian is not a semetic language, it is a language belonging to Indo-Iranian group of languages which once again are part of Indo-European family of languages. Arabic, Hebrew, etc belong to semitic language family.

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