Quranic translations

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Mar 3, 2008 at 13:39

You are very correct that early Muslims indeed did not wish to see the Qur'an being translated, and the painful truth is because the Muslim masorites (those Ulama that worked on the grammar and syntax of the Qur'an in the 3rd century of islam) discovered that the Qur'an was full of mistakes in garmmar and syntax (Gasp!) and they still had to really understand what this opaque revelation was really saying.

Now enter the Persians. They were dragged into Islam kicking and screaming and they never abandoned their Persian language for Arabic and they were the ones that insisted on translating the Qur'an into Persian (not out of love for Arabic but out of love for their own great cultue, language and civilization that was never conjured by Islam), and yes the Persian Qur'an is written in Arabic with Persian translation. And once you open the door there is no going back. I also suspect that Persians opted for Shi3a Islam in-order to distance themselves from the Arabs and their imperialism

As for the hadith: As far as I know Muslims did not even allow non Muslims to view books of the hadith for a long time and I believe in the case of Egypt until the early 20th century. And I suspect that most smart Muslims realized early on that the hadith is anachronistic and is plain silly

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