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I don't get it ...Reader comment on item: Analyst Calls for Redefinition of 'War on Terror' Submitted by Richard Burd (United States), Aug 9, 2002 at 13:42 Daniel says militant Islam has it's origins in the 20th century, in the 1920's. But wasn't Muhammad an Islamist? Wasn't his body of ideas the same as Osma bin Laden? Didn't he believe in waging Jihad against kufirs? And what about the Almohades in Spain, or the Ottomans in Turkey? They had the same ideas too didn't they? can you clarify this?Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments". << Previous Comment Next Comment >> Reader comments (35) on this item
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