Why doesn't anyone examine Islamic Apartheid?

Submitted by Kepha Hor (United States), Mar 13, 2013 at 21:14

It seems to me that segregation according to religion was a traditional feature of the Islamic world, and in Islamic cities Muslims, Christians, and Jews generally lived apart. The travellers' tales of pre-modern times often speak of "Jewish quarters" or "Christian quarters" in the cities of Muslim-majority countries--as well as the grandparents' tales of non-Muslims of Middle Eastern descent. Come to think of it, even in Sinitic Asia Muslims often self-segregate (such was the case in Guilin; and many know of the famous Niujie area of Beijing). Many Muslims also believe that extended contact with unbelievers, including Ahl-al-Kitab, is polluting and demeaning, and that there may well be strong support for such beliefs in Qur'an and Hadith (I'll defer to others with greater expertise). Yet, I do not see anyone crying out about Islamic Apartheid.

Re Israeli Apartheid, I also wonder is it isn't the "instinct" of the slight Mizrahi majority of that country to live apart from Muslims--again, someone correct me if I'm wrong. And, are there truly Israeli laws that mandate legal segregation? If there are none, I see this talk of Israeli "Apartheid" as strictly hostile propaganda.

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".