A Matter of Interpretation

Submitted by Mike Ramirez (United States), Apr 26, 2013 at 00:23

Susan: Regarding Quran 33:59, you wrote in part: "There is room for discussion, n'est-ce pas?" Yes, and that's the neat thing about Canada and America. We can still have a freedom of discussion and even disagreement about the interpretation and application of this verse. However, such is not the case where the official ruling is made within an Islamic society that is controlled, for example, by the hard-line ruling of the Taliban. Women in such controlled societies have no room for discussion at all. Granted, there are several sects of Islam that vary in how they interpret some of the Qur'anic verses just as there are varying ways to interpret a verse that is found within other religions like Judaism, Christianity, etc. However, there is only one fundamental truth to the intended meaning and yet even that is debated by all.

As a side note, I found the following verse to be quite a contrast to the head covering that is obligatory in Islam and shaving of the head that some Orthodox sects used to abide by: 1 Corinthians 11:15: "But if a woman have long hair, it is a glory to her: for her hair is given her for a covering." Now, that also could be open for discussion and debate but still there is really only one original intended meaning just as their is one original intended meaning for the head covering that is obligatory in Islam.

Thus, upon research of the Qur'an and Ahadith, my personal conclusion would be that Muslim husbands were to be extremely protective of their wives not being looked upon by other men and therefore, the verse of the veiling of women was to be included in the Qur'an, as stated in the previously cited Hadith. (ref. Sahih Bukhari, Vol. 1, Book 8, No. 395). The niqab and burkah would certainly prevent the "flirtatious attraction" by a man seeing a woman in public and perhaps that was another of the strict controls that Muslim men were to have over their wives during the time of Muhammad. Thoughts?

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