Messed up chronology

Submitted by James (United States), Jan 15, 2003 at 20:01

How can female genital mutilation "follow from some basic Islamic assumptions about sexuality and ways to order a righteous society", given that it originated centuries before the advent of Islam (the type practised in north eastern Africa is still described in Arabic 'al-faroniyya'). "The practice is almost entirely limited to Muslim societies"..... true, but we could also say "Most Muslim societies do not practice FGM".

---

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".