Our dear Seamus and his damsel in distress and the word Islam and the Hellenes

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Jun 26, 2007 at 07:39

Our dear Seamus wrote

>language is what we make of it

This is very correct. But he never advanced beyond this point. And if he is correct that word Islam also means peace, then we must find such great bid3a (innovation) in an Arabic dictionary. He never provided us with such evidence because it does not exist.

Then he says that the word islam must also mean peace because our dear Angela who knows no Arabic (and cannot even tell the difference between real Arabic and our dear Seamus confused "Arabic language for dummies" Arabic) because she says so and has the audacity to tell us that Islam brings peace to its followers therefore the word Islam must mean peace and for this see below.

Now for a breakdown of the root SLM and the meaning of the words Islam and salam and why the word Islam cannot mean salam see

htt://www.danielpipes.org/comments/97789

Now our dear Seamus feel free to prove me wrong.

Then when he was told based on his logic and the logic of our dear damsel Angela we must conclude the following:

1. The words Christianity, Hinduism, Buddhism, Paganism etc...must also mean peace!

2. The word Islam cannot mean peace at least by the victims of Islam

I never heard his reply to the above

Then he was told why should the word Islam mean salam when we have a perfect Arabic word for peace and that is salam? I even suggest that he tells a Muslim who is also an Arabic speaker that the word salam really means Islam! He/She will think that our dear Seamus is out of his mind. But Arabs are polite people and he will not be correted.

So one more time:

1. The word islam means surrender (to Allah)

2. salam means peace

3. The words salam and islam has nothing in common except they belong to the same root SLM

As for his bizarre little diatribes about: armagedon and if we do not accept the fact that word islam must mean peace! I will leave such comments to the readers to judge him ...

Then he tells us that he and his "folk" are Ebionites but he seems to be totally ignorant about the Jews of Mecca (if such story was a real story more likely than not they were Ebionites) and their great confrontation with Muhammad (sira pages 571-572) and their very profound question and that is the Aristotelian problem for which the Aristotle was killed by the Athenians: If Allah created this Creation then who really created Allah?

Then he proceeds to tell that that it says in the Bible in Hebrew that the word was not creation but manifest. When I told him then it seems that his God covered his creation until he wanted to make it manifest. Then which hand did he use? And was he right or left handed? and how did he function with one hand? and why did he make it manifest? and it must have been created at one point and then was convered and why is that?So he created it this creation at one time, then who really created it him?

These were more or less the same questions that were posed to muhammad by the Jews of Mecca and Muahmmad's answer were not unlike our dear Seamus' answers and that is: this is childish and God is one. But again what do we except from people like him who live in a world of fantasy?

Now as for his damsel she ain't no damsel. She is another tablighee who pretends to be a damsel.

---

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".