Back to basics

Submitted by jennifer solis (United States), May 5, 2008 at 02:34

Generally, a moderate Muslim is one who does not impose his ideology and beliefs on others.

Is this possible without diluting Islam? Can a moderate Muslim claim piety, loyalty towards his religion?

There are Muslims who say, yes, and go as far as to "re-interpret" Quranic dogma.

One such is Mahmud Muhammad Taha, a co-founder of the Sudanese Republican Party, who fundamentally re-interpreted the Qur'an, claiming women and other people of other faiths were accorded equal status, and Quranic concepts of compassion, mercy, justice, and beauty supersede some of the less tolerant passages of the Sunna.

There is no mention of Shar'ia law in the Qur'an.

No mention of Dar al-Harb, or Dar al-Islam.

I have heard it said that the Qur'an is "content without context" - and while some verses in the Qur'an are difficult to not take at face value, I believe that it could be argued that certain passages are applicable only towards existing circumstance at the the time which they were written.

While personally no fan of the Qur'an, I do believe the possibility of interpretation of the Qur'an which would justify moderate Muslim status exists.

Regrettably, numerous additional outside "dynamia" have led to the current predicament.

As a side note - I don't believe "moderate Muslims" are the sole solution.

Only when "radical Muslims" see that their ideology is to their detriment; that will promote, and result in, the spread of "moderate Islam".

"Moderate Islam" will never, in and of itself, produce a "reformation".

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