When is a wartime blockade not a blockade?

Submitted by Morris Gavant (United States), Jun 1, 2010 at 09:23

When is a blockade not a blockade? When it's Jewish lives that are at risk.

We didn't hear too much about these thugs and leftists trying to break the equally effective Egyptian blockade. Why is that?

This all comes down to a basic religious tenet that the vast majority of Moslems can never acknowledge non-Moslem sovereignty on any land that was once under Moslem rule (including Spain). Those who attacked the Israeli wartime blockade of Gaza (the source of continued missle attacks on an adjacent sovereign nation) chose this confrontation with the Jews despite the fact they could transfer their supplies safely and uneventfully through the standard land route used by the Israelis to send humanitarian aid to Gazan Arabs and Christians. (There are no Jews in Gaza.) These "peaceful" resistant fighters do so because ultimately they can't stand the fact that a Jewish state, even with all its human frailities, exists and thus will ultimately call for too high a moral obligation for the individual and their society. If the Jewish state exists, then the Jewish God exists. If the Jewish God exists, then murdering civilians is really evil and not just a difference of cultural opinion.

I'm waiting to see leftists of this same ilk run South Korea's blockade of North Korea. Don't hold your breath.

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