Say what? Moses was pre-Judaic?

Submitted by sara (United States), Dec 5, 2012 at 17:38

Wow Slayhy. Where on earth are you getting this info from? I would love to see your sources. Would you mind referring me to some of them, just out of curiosity? thanks!

So, let us see. According to the Torah (written way before the Quran and excerpts stolen for use by Mohamed):

Abram ventured in to Canaan from Mesopotamia with the guidance of God. He then made a covenant that created the Jewish people, designated by Isaac's near sacrifice. So Judaism is clearly established and the lineage of Abraham to (and Sarah) Isaac (rebeccah) to Jacob (Rachel, Leah) .

Prior to Abraham, one could argue that Judaism was not formalized and no convenant had been established. Please keep this in mind also: when Abraham made the covenant with God it was AFTER Hagar was banished and in the desert with Ishmael, so they were clearly NOT part of the covenant with God. There is a dialog between Hagar and God though.

So, back to Moses. We have established that Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, to Levi (one of the 12 tribes), to Kohath (brother of Yocheved), to Amram (brother of Uzziel, Hebron and Izhar, father of Aaron, Miriam and Moses). There we have it in 7 generations, Jewish lineage demarcated for you and there is historical reference all documented . Enjoy.

Oh, and by the way, in case you're confused:

Amran is arabicized to Imran. In the Qur'an, the name Imran is used for two different people. The first one is Amram the father of Moses and the second one is Joachim the father of Mary, the mother of Jesus. Amram, the father of Moses and Aaron, is a revered patriarch of Islam. The Qur'an says:

God did choose Adam and Noah, the family of Abraham, and the family of Amram above all people,-

—Qur'an, sura 3 (The House of Imran), ayah 33^[7]

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