A question or two.

Submitted by Jon MC (United Kingdom), Jul 2, 2013 at 09:29

Daniel, I do not doubt that Islam has changed it's practices from time to time in history.

An obvious example is the tacit extension of dhimmitude to Hindus in India, despite that being limited by the Koran to (essentially) Jews and Xtians.

Now, you will have noticed I said "practices", not beliefs, aims etc. My reason is that I wonder how much of this pragmatic change was on the basis of Taysir/Darura and as such essentially a temporary matter and how much a genuine shift in belief.

I would be interested in your comment.

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