historical analogies?

Submitted by gayle (United States), Mar 31, 2014 at 11:55

In your response to Ibrahim's recent piece for CBN, you gave an example of how most Jews and Christians have "moderated" the biblical stance on homosexuality:

For example, Leviticus 20:13 states that "If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall be put to death." Yet, these days, important branches of Judaism andChristianity accept male homosexual activity. If such precise words can be reversed, why not those of Koran 9:29?

My question is: Did "radical" Jews and Christians ever actually put homosexuals to death? If not, then the actions of the Jews never followed the precise words of the Bible and so the analogy to Koran 9:29 is not applicable.

Using google to find an answer was really no help; but it did uncover some very "islamic-like" examples of biblical instruction and subsequent violence of Jews against other tribes. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Judaism_and_violence. I think some of those were more analogous to the situation with Islam.

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