When the Bible Judges Racism

Submitted by M Tovey (United States), Mar 17, 2017 at 15:17

So Michael S;
Racism; is it or is it not explicitly demonstrated in the Holy Bible and dependent upon how that is determined, does it have specific implications to today's inhumanity to humanity as it is practiced today? The problem in distinguishing the dilemma stems from issues of linguistics of ancient languages and further issues in distinguishing ethnic characteristics.
For instance, as a more modern example (the earlier ones are easy, but not necessarily sufficient to make a point); let us speak of Jesus' rejection of the Syro-Phoenician woman when she petitioned him to heal her daughter. Was Jesus racist in initially refusing her request due to her not being Jewish? It might be construed that way by anyone who does not judge by truth.

You are, by this observation, correct in the issue of racism in the Holy Bible.
The Egyptians were racist towards the Jewish population, from the time of Joseph (the Egyptian servants were disdainful of the Hebrew children, even as Pharaoh gave Joseph pre-eminent power over his household); which later culminate in the Exodus. Racism was rampant during the Assyrian and Babylonian incursions against Israel; later the Elamites and then Haman, the Agagite, when trying to destroy the diaspora along with Mordechai and Esther.
Then how do we characterize Pontius Pilate in speaking to Jesus, saying am I a Jew?

Racism is implicit in human nature and it has run rife in history, being the proximal cause to just about every long running cause for hatred and divisive adversity in every epoch of the human existence. And only observing the love of God for all humanity, so much so that His Son went to the cross to give the eternal reason for not being racist, does anyone get to see how it will get eradicated in the future amongst the those who will go to Jerusalem to worship the King of the Jews.

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