No different than misuse of word "Anti-semite"

Submitted by Adam, JD (United States), Nov 30, 2005 at 23:17

Mr. Pipes:

You and many other commentators and advocates for Israeli/Jewish rights often misuse the term "anti-semitism" just as those people misused the word racism. Anti-semitism does not mean being opposed to Jews. Semites are a class of people that includes Arabs, yet no one uses the term to accuse someone of bias against Arabs. Yet you now claim that "racism" is being misused, rather than responding to the obvious heart of the allegations. Why not respond to the implications, rather than setting up this straw man of a semantic argument?

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