why do muslims have to apologize?

Submitted by AO (United States), May 3, 2006 at 13:56

I have 2 questions for you. (with multiple parts to each)

1. why is it that muslims as a whole (all 1.2 billion of us) have to apologize for the acts of a few (i.e al-qaida). When Oklahoma was bombed by a christian, no one asked the christian community to applogize for it. I understand that many in the muslim world were cheering, etc. But for some reason, the muslims in America and the entire muslim population as a whole needs to apologize for it in order to satisfy the US/West.

Why? When it's an act of aggresion done by the west (i.e. palestine, iraq, afghanistan, bosnia, etc) those people are identified as iraqi, palestinian, afghani, etc. Not as muslims. Is this a physcological game by the west to isolate those people and prevent the entire muslim population from helping and asking why we are being targeted?

2. In Palestine, why is it that the Israeli's are perceived to be the victims? If you look at the living conditions and the treatment that each side gets from the other. It's by far the palestinians that are the victims here. Just in the amount of deaths since the 2001 intifada, the ratio is ridiculous. The palestinians are in a virtual prison!. Women prevented from going to the hospital to deliver babies because of the checkpoint. Roads blocked by Israeli bulldozers. Farms leveled because of "possible" security risk. This just doesn't add up as far as how we view this in the west. Children prevented from going to school because they have to wait up to 4 hours to get through a checkpoint. The IDF is treating the palestinians worst than the nazi's treated the jews in Europe. If anyone should be sympathetic to the people being oppressed, it should be the israeli's. They seem to be leading the world (probably in history) in the art of oppression.

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