One question

Submitted by Charles (United Kingdom), Feb 12, 2003 at 07:16

Whilst I can sympathise with many of the arguments in this article, the same question always comes into my head when thinking of the Israel/Palestine issues: Why was the post-1967 Israeli occupation not more benevolent? ...

Sure, I know that after 1948 the West Bank and Gaza Strip were governed appalingly by Arab nations. But why in Jerusalem for example do the Arab streets in the east not have name plates? I am no apologist for the disgraceful 'governance' of the PA, or any other Arab regime, and I would undoubtedly rather have been born a Jerusalemite Palestinian under, for example, Begin than born an Iraqi under Saddam, or Syrian under Hafez al-Assad. But I honestly believe that if Israel had genuinely tried to advance economic development in the OT's on an equal footing to its own economy, the first intifada - let alone this current, dreadful conflict - may never have erupted

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