Equality versus rights

Submitted by Kris (Canada), Feb 16, 2008 at 15:53

Ahmad, you are avoiding giving straight answer. How the anwer to my question about equality can be "YES" if in the next sentence you grant me only 100% of rights the infidel has in a Muslim country? You are not saying, I presume that under sharia a non-Muslim has the same rights in the Islamic country as a Muslim?

Since the time of Abu Hanifa, the author of foundamental religious concepts the orthodox tradition of Islam is that the world is divided into two components: dar al-Islam, the house of Islam and dar al-Harb, the house of war. The non-Muslim inhabitants of the dar al-Harb are called harbi, (in dar al-Islam they are called dhimmi).

Dar al-Harb or parts of it were historically or are currently called sometimes different names:

Dar al-Kufr "house of infidels" or "domain of disbelief",

Dar al Hudna "house of calm",

Dar al-'Ahd "house of truce" ,

Dar al-Sulh "house of treaty",

Dar al-Dawa "house of invitation",

Dar al-Amn "house of safety".

Abu Hanifa had been born several decades after the death of the Prophet. All these terms are (maybe except dar al-Kufr used by the Prophet to refer to the Quraish-dominated society of Mecca) therefore newer than the Quran and the Hadith.

Do they, however, appear in sharia?

Straight answer "yes" or "no" will be sufficient. No, qualifiers, please.

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