For Faiyaz on the deity of Jesus Christ

Submitted by Peter Herz (United States), Oct 19, 2009 at 06:03

Faiyaz, these words are for you, if you indeed are a seeker of truth rather than a bigot. Hopefully, in your city of Darjeeling, India, there is a place where you can get the Scriptures of the Old and New Testaments in either English or whatever language you are most comfortable with--perhaps even Greek, the original language of the New Testament. I paraphrase some important verses, lest I take up too much space.

In Mark 2, people brought a paralytic to Jesus. He told the paralytic, "Your sins are forgiven". Several of his enemies who heard said, "Who can forgive sins but God only?" Jesus then asked, "Which is easier, to tell the paralytic, 'your sins are forgiven', or 'Rise, take up your bed and walk?'"

Jesus then said, "But that ye may know that the Son of man has power on earth to forgive sins, I tell you [the paralytic] arise, take up your bed, and go your way." Immediately, the paralytic arose and went his way. (Mark 2:1-11).

By way of commentary, the title "Son of Man" is applied to the Messiah. It comes from the Old Testament book of Daniel, Chapter 7, vs. 13. In Mark 2, Jesus shows he is both Messiah and God Incarnate.

In John 8 Jesus explicitly claims deity in these words:

"Before Abraham was, I AM." (John 8:58). In Greek, the "I AM" is also a present tense. Why this strange grammar? In the Old Testament book of Exodus, when God spoke to Moses from the burning book, he gives his name as "I Am"--indicating that God is the first and eternal being.

Now, Faiyaz, here is a question. The Muslims will say the Bible (Old and New Testaments) are corrupted by the Jews and Christians. Then, how is it, when the Jews and Christians were so often at odds, that they wrangle over the same Old Testament text; while the different sects of Christians wrangle over the same 27 books of the New Testament [just as Sunni, Shi'ah, Ibadi, and Ahmadi wrangle over the same Qu'ran]? Also, why does the church give me both the New Testament and the Old (which we share with the Jews) in the same volume, and why do we dispute with the Jews only over the meaning of the Old Testament text rather than the text itself?

These are the reasons why I object to saying "PBUH" when referring to Jesus. If Jesus were merely another dead sinner [and, according to my faith, all humans are sinners save Jesus, who is both God AND man) awaiting the day of judgment in some grave in the Land of Israel, then, perhaps, the PBUH is appropriate. But, if he is indeed risen from the dead and preparing to return to judge the living and the dead, then it is more appropriate to ask for HIS peace upon me and others.

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