A pinch of salt required to accept revisionist views

Submitted by B.N.Gururaj (India), Feb 21, 2011 at 00:05

"there was no Islam as we know it" until two or three hundred years after the traditional version has it (more like CE 830 than 630); it developed not in the distant deserts of Arabia but through the interaction of Arab conquerors and their more civilized subject peoples."

This view seems to be of some doubt, as the first known unsuccessful attack on Indian border occurred as early as 662 AD. Mohmmed Bin Kasim's invasion occurred in early 9th Century around 812 AD. In between, there were a series of attacks on India's western border. From the manner in which Hindu and Buddhist religious structures were targeted, there can be no doubt that the raids were inspired by Islam, or at least an ideology very much akin to Islam. Especially, Md.Bin Kasim's invasion left 4000 dead not to speak of Islam entrenching itself for the first time on the western Indian shores and borders. The developments in the 9th century have been documented in Chachnama, which is found in Elliot & Dawson's "History of India as told by Her Own People".

There is also clear record in India that Rashtrakuta Kings who ruled Southern and Western India in 8th and 9th century had permitted building of mosques on Indian land for their own political ends to challenge Chalukya kings who ruled further up north in the present Gujarat State.

If Arabian language itself came from somewhere up north, what was the language used by Pagan Arabs?

I think, this Europe-centered research should also take account of Asian sources

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