Not supported by history

Submitted by Brian (United States), Jul 3, 2011 at 04:45

Although Mike's basic premise is correct that not all the land controlled by Israel was purchased, his recount of history is not. The British gained control after WWI (not WWII) specifically for the purpose of administering the break-up of the Ottoman Empire. In the case of the Levant special consideration was given to protect substantial Jewish and Christian minorities in Palestine and Lebanon.

Up to that point virtually 100% of Jewish controlled land had been purchased under the prevailing laws of the Ottomans and then the British. The rest of the land was acquired in the course of a defensive war whose conclusion still has not been settled.

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