why does Sweden have a policy position toward Israel at all?

Submitted by myth (Germany), Nov 15, 2014 at 07:47

Why does Sweden have a policy position toward Israel at all? Do I see any defining relationships with Israel that would justify that? In my opinion Sweden has no basis to substantiate interference.

Germany, as an example to illustrate the opposite, does have these relationships. Three facts define the relation of Modern-day-Germany with Modern-day-Israel: 1st the 1972 olympics attacks on the Israeli team in München. 2nd Germany supplying Israel exclusively with submarines. 3rd a notable number of Israeli citizens living here.

As for the nature of Sweden's positions these do neglect the democratic structure of Israel. When dealing with a democratic country one would discuss specific positions with specific parties in the other country. Sweden obviously ignores the Israeli party-system as if Israel was not a democracy at all. Toward Palestine however Sweden differentiates between the PA and Fatah.

I get the impression that Sweden seeks a relationship with the Palestinians and rejects one with Israel as a principle.

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