a linguistic question

Submitted by SaEFan (United States), Jul 7, 2017 at 15:05

My question is simple. Lets accept that the base quantity of Falasteenian Muslims in the 19th Century before the 1830's was about 120,000 (note I did not say "Arabs"), and presumably spoke Falasteenian Arabic. If indeed most of the people claiming Falasteenian "peoplehood" were immigrants from other countries, mostly Arabic speakers in their own idioms and accents, how come all came to speak Falasteenian Arabic so rapidly?
Or am I wrong? If wrong then the Falasteenians hailing from the various parts of Palestine of 1947 should all be speaking strong variants of Arabic, some with Iraqi accents, some Egyptian, some Syrian, some Yemenite, etc.
I have yet to hear of any study of this question.
I do know that the Druze community of what was Syria and northern Israel do speak their own variant of Arabic. E.g. the letter "a" in many words is replaced with "ee", I believe.

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