To Mohammad Saleem Akhtar (Addendum)

Submitted by Swahili Dinaz (India), Oct 16, 2005 at 13:51

Inshallah, the moderate Muslims will soon stop being so bewildered. Moghul emperor Akbar, who ruled a large portion of North India, had dissuaded his Muslim subjects from going on the Hajj pilgrimage to Makkah, because it bred extra-territorial loyalties (similar to Vatican loyalties in modern times). Thus between 1586 and 1605, there was not a single Muslim who visited Makkah from India. Akbar refused to acknowledge the aging Muhammad's claim to prophethood, citing his depravity in marrying a six-year old girl. He also abolished the jiziya tax on non-Muslims, and it was during his rule that Sufi saints thrived unmolested by the Islamists. In the meanwhile, India enjoyed some respite and peace from Islamist depradations.

"No one calls the shots in the community because there is no authority in Islam."
--What then of Arab control of the pre-Islamic polytheist shrine of Makkah, and Islamic charities? So how does the 'Death to America' call resonate around the world in a single voice? How could the entire Islamic world respond to the fatwa against Salman Rushdie, even when it was issued by the Shia Ayatollah of Iran? (To the extent that secular India was among the first nations to ban Satanic Verses in a classic case of appeasement. How long before Europe and the US face similar pressures?)

"Wrong. Above sentence (moderate opinion, the voice of reason is worthless to Islam) might apply to 15-20% of 1.5 billion muslims. Not all of them."
--Then why are fatwas not issued and implemented against the terrorists, while the terrorist fatwas are accorded full compliance? Why are Islamic governments not punishing the terrorists in their midst?

Lastly, does 'bridging the gap between Islam and other religions' also involve equal respect for the said religions, and freedom for all to practice the faith of their choosing or not to follow any faith at all, even under Islamic regimes?

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