and 2 women...

Submitted by Taj (United States), Oct 28, 2007 at 03:49

Nothing actually wrong here unless, as you have done, you make inaccurate quotes and/or take them out ot context.

If you are going to quote the Islamic texts, it is good to quote them accurately. For example, your "quote" above is a total fudge of the actual statement found in the Quran.

It is not about "if you have a conflict..." nor does the verse even state this. The verse states, "...when you contract a debt over an agreed amount of time, write it down..." Later, the verse continues, "And bring to witness (the written contract) two witnesses from your men. and If there are not two men, than a man and two women..."

Here, then comes the popular but misconcieved criticism of the "2 women" requirement. And I would be remiss not to state that certain Muslim commentary is also misconcieved.

There is only one instance in which 2 women are used as a substitute for one man. Any subsequent sharia law that allows for any additional use, such as a regular court hearing, etc. is totally incorrect. And of course the criticism that this somehow means that one woman's testimony is worth half a man's is also incorrect and an indication of irrational generalization.

There is one reason and one reason alone as to why 2 women are required in this instance and a simple reading of the entire Quranic verse (2:282) makes it clear: "...so that if one of them errs, the other can remind her"

This wisely protected a woman who might be cross examined in any resulting litication or challenge of the contract from chauvanist attitudes in an attempt to cheat on the contract by somehow attacking the character and credibility of a woman.

In essence this was the first example of affirmative action, not one of injustice

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