The missing Persians and the al-ruum (sic) and re-reading Qur'an 30:1-3

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), May 3, 2008 at 19:21

Our dear samer seems not to be aware that the Persians invaded the Greek/Byzantine empire in 616CE and occupied Syria and palestine and Egypt so which one is the lowest land our dear samer? The Persians were pushed back by the Greeks and left Egypt in 627-628CE. Your claim is bogus

Now I have the following questions for you:

1. How come your Allah does not mention the word al-majus or the Persians?

2. If we do not know what these three letters (alif lam meem) in the first aya means then why should we believe your little tafseer of such aya? You tell us ya ayuha al-falyasoof al-kabeer.

3. As for the word al-ruum why would your Arabian Allah uses a Syriac word (oh the language of your ancestors if you are really Palestinian as you claim) for the Greeks or Ruumaye and not an Arabic word as al-ighreeq or al-yunaniyuun?

Now one can very much re-edit the 3Ulamas reading of the Qur'an and read it as:

ghalabatu al-yunaniyuun fi adna al-ard wa huma min ba3di ghulbihum sayughlabuun

Or: the Greeks were victorious in the nearer lnad and they, after their victory, they will be defeated

And this is indeed what happened. They defeated the Persians and then were defeated by the Arabs

And this can be done by very simple changes in the aya and by:

1. adding a fatha above the letter ghain instead of the damma in GHLBT

2. adding a fatha above the lam instead of the kasra in GHLBT

3. adding a damma above the ghian in GHLBHM instead of the fatha

4. adding a damma above the yeh in SYGHLBN instead of a fatha

Now we can say that the Greeks were victorious against the Persians but were defeated by the Arabs

What do you think our dear samer?

So much for the Qur'an's claim that it is a kitab mubeen

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