Our dear gaj and muslim logic

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Apr 25, 2009 at 10:38

Our dera Gaj agrees with me that you cannot find the name of Muahmmad any where in the ayat that he quoted

>Why would Allah be talking about Moses or Jesus (peace be upon them),

Why not?he talks about them ad nauseum right?

> the Qur'an was revealed centuries after Moses had died, and centuries after Jesus,

So? but we have it in a lawh mahfuz in Allah's little library and Allah had it in this lawh mahfuz for a pretty long time before Muhammad the Arabian warlord and caravan raider was born. Right? and you agree with me that you cannot find Muhammad's name in any of these ayat right? then how can you be sure that it is not jesus or Moses or even me?

> plus the Qur'an was not revealed to Moses or Jesus but was revealed to prophet Muhammad(pbuh), so Allah is referring to him,

Then how come his name is absent? Oh we must assume! But wait: you agree with me that Muhammad's name is supposed to be Quthan and his Kunya is Abul Qasim! So where would i find either names in the Qur'an?

> just as the tafsirs say.

What tafseer? And if the tafseer is relaible then how come no one has a clue what all those al-ahruf al-muqata3a really mean (oh the arabic? you know by the now I ain't gonna tell ya) or what the likes of the word ilaf really means? So what do you think ya ayuha al-falyasoof al-kabeer?

> Your poor logic amazes me.

I will leave this remark to the readers to judge you

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