truth always trumps delusion

Submitted by the Grand Infidel of Kaffiristan (Australia), Nov 20, 2011 at 22:00

Mr Slayhy of the UAE, completely unable to see any other viewpoint than his own as valid , writes:

"....Moses told his people that to follow him who will come with the word of God. God will put the words in his mouth (That is Muhammad). He will speak to his people as if God is speaking to the people (That is Muhammad). His name is mentioned in Solomon songs 5:16 – in Hebrew it is pronounced Muhammad"

Again Mr Slayhy demonstrates the unfortunate capacity for self-delusion and the proclivity of the mind to see what it wants to see - putting aside all evidence to the contrary.

http://www.answering-islam.org/BibleCom/songs5-16.html

Note:

"In Arabic many words are formed from the same root , but they do not on that account denote Muhammad. An ignorant Muslim might just as well assert that Muhammad's name occurred in Surah 1, Al Fatihah, verse 1: Al hamdo lillahi Rabbi 'lalamin ("Praise be to God, the Lord of the worlds"). In the same way a Hindu might assert that the name of Ram or some other of his deities was mentioned in the Qur'an, because in Sura 30, Ar-Rum, verse 1, we read " the Romans have been overcome," where Arabic dictionaries give "Rum" as if derived from the root "ram". This kind of argument is unworthy of men of learning and judgement."

So perhaps Mr Slayhy could explain why the reasons delineated above are NOT true and the root word

'Hmd' ('delights' )

refers specifically to Mo in this one instance (where it is convenient for Muslims to believe it) but does not refer to Mo in other instances in the Bible (or other Jewish scriptures).

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