same rule for all?

Submitted by the Grand Infidel of Kaffiristan (Australia), Dec 20, 2011 at 01:51

Mr Amin Riaz writes from the UK:

".... And because of that the Arabs that have lived in territory known as Palestine have much more rights over that land. Especially over Jews that come from Europe."

So the same logic should apply to all sorts of groups? For example the English have 'much more rights' over their own land than Pakistanis and Arabs who are now wish to be living there - correct?

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