an example please

Submitted by the Grand Infidel of Kaffiristan (Australia), Jan 10, 2012 at 19:40

Mr Riaz writes trying to convince readers that another contributor to this blog, dhimmi no more, knows NO arabic - despite evidence to the contrary:

"..When he does copy from without know context he gets stuff wrong.

GIK "As example:http://www.danielpipes.org/comments/191799

"This flat earth issue - is found on other websites. Hence it not a great indicator at all for knowing Arabic. "

-----------I have exchanged several hundred msgs (???) with him. He has failed to understand even the basics. It is not just his lies... but "types of lies" that are numerous. And often easily demonstrable lies. A lot of times on this site he just makes up the lie of grammar mistake in the Quran. As you point out most visitors do not understand Arabic. So the lies are from them ..."

Mr Armin seems to be suggesting that a person without any knowledge of a foreign language AND script can successfully cut and paste paragraphs written in that language and script - and present them to (presumed) native speakers as counter arguments about the meaning and spelling of those paragraphs.

Perhaps Mr Armin could demonstrate how this is possible. Without any help from native speakers of these languages - and assuming he has no knowledge of these languages - could he show how he could successfully cut and paste and explain and discuss the meaning of chapters of the Tao Te Ching written in Mandarin and debate it with a Mandarin speaker? Or a Bible written in Vietnamese if that is too hard?

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