Cutting One's Teeth on Biblical Translations

Submitted by M. Tovey (United States), Mar 8, 2012 at 17:36

At first there was reluctance to do more than cautiously observe this exchange until the Latin of my youth kicked in; and the curiosity of a Latin Vulgate styled phrase was inserted to make a point from a place that one might wonder why Latin Vulgate might trump Quranic Arabic.

I'll leave the line of logic that got to this place; yet I'll extend my wonder as to why such an exchange might require someone of a defined Islamic philosophic ideology to quote a Hebrew Aramaic phrase translated into Latin. Is it not because the use of it is out of context?

If one is to make a differentiation between western societies' observances of responsibilities to their citizens from the oriental/Islamic ideological frame of mind, it is strange that a Latin translation of a phrase long ago adopted in Christian circles as evangelically apocalyptic in tone can be used against Christians without knowing the context.

A suggestion for its use is made: remember that only the Spirit of the L—D makes the distinction of who gets sent to the place of outer darkness; and since it is spoken by Him who has that power, one should reconsider their relationship with Him before using His WORD out of context.

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