Aristotle and Muslims

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Sep 21, 2013 at 10:39

Our dear Abu who resides among kuffar in Holland that pay the cost of his social benefits and health care then Sobhanallah he flies to Morocco on al-Buraq like his so called prophet al-jahil al-kabeer so were you deported from Holland our dear Abu?

>As a response to your issue: Is (the word/name) Jerusalem mentioned in the Quran?

So can we find the word al-Quds in the Qur'an? I'm waiting for your answer with great anticipation

>So surely you are assuming from the answer to this question that Jerusalem belongs to the jews and not the Muslims.

No the question is not does Jerusalem belong to the Jews or to Muslims the question is where can we find the name al-Quds in the Qur'an?

See? your logic is flawed

And here is your bonus question for today: Did the Arab invade Palestine in 637CE or not? Hint: they did

>That's your whole point, is it not?

No it is not. The question is very clear where can we find the word al-Quds in the Qur'an?

See? they do not teach Aristotelian logic

>If that's our way of understanding, than I want to ask you something: Are the words "Christianity" and "Judaism" mentioned in the bible?

So before we can answer you; Is the Bible a corrupted book or not? See? you need to read Aristotle because you are making a fool of yourself

>The answer is: NO,

Then you are admitting that the Bible is not a corrupted book thank you our dear Abu now do you think that i should tell the nut Islamic cases in Holland that you are saying that the Bible is not a corrupted book?

>so we can conclude that they are not God's religion and self-made.

How can you reach such conclusion enlighten me

Your logic is flawed and let me guess you do not even get it

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