Q17:1 is about the exodus of the Jews

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Sep 19, 2015 at 07:54

Here are more gems from our dear SF

(ii) Why do you call this poor arabic,

Because by the 3rd century of Islam al-Mufasereen were correcting this poor Arabic and Allah's editor in chief was al-Tabari

maybe this spelling was accepted at the time?

Sure but do you know what this means?

1. It means that Quranic Arabic with its many mistakes in grammar and syntax is the language of poorly educated Arabs and not Allah's Arabi Faseeh

2. This means that Allah cannot be the author of the Qur'an

3. It also means that the Qur'an is a created text

4. And al-Mufasereen were ready to help Allah and his poor Arabic read tafseer ibn Kathir of the grammatical mistake in 20:63 in hadhan la sahiran

5. Last it really means that CA is a derivative of Quranic Arabic did you get this one?

See? Silence is golden

Are there any pre/non Islamic sources of the same period which have spelt the word in a similar manner?

Hello: the only evidence that we have about early Islam is the literary sources written in distant Mesopotamia by mostly Persians 250-300 years after the death of Muhammad oh and the Qur'an which is text with no context

You did not get this one did you?

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