allah ...

Submitted by steve (United States), May 27, 2015 at 20:44

This raises the question that may have already been raised here but I don't see it. How does the koran justify apparent misappropriation of parts of the bible as if it were involved in their evolution that is so far from the time line. What is the evidence for the koran coming into existence during the 7th century. I am not that familiar with research as there must be in this area so any suggestions are appreciated.

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".