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Palestinian Arabs are Not "THE Palestinians"Reader comment on item: Is There a Palestinian People? Can It be Defeated? Submitted by Jerome R Verlin (United States), Jan 11, 2017 at 17:08 Palestine's Arabs being "the Palestinians" is part of the same worldview as Palestine's Jews being implants of "the colonial Zionist entity." Palestinian Arab nationalism, arising in the 20th century, is not peoplehood. We have to reclaim Jewish equity in "Palestinian." First, effect on the perception issue: The UN in 1947 sought to partition Palestine, not between "Palestinians" and Jews (like partitioning Pennsylvania between Pennsylvanians and Jews), but into an "Arab State" and "Jewish State." 181 called Palestine's Jews and its Arabs "the two Palestinian peoples," Second, effect on the Roots issue: Jewish peoplehood in Palestine dates back continuously for three millennia, a continuous homeland-claiming presence that wrote the Zionists' "real title deeds," as historian Parkes said. Our roots claim to the land of Israel, a/k/a Palestine, is vastly deeper than Arabs', but we don't effectively make that case to the world by ourselves calling. e.g., Palestine's Arabs "THE Palestinians," and calling Judea-Samaria, that was called "the hill country of Samaria and Judea" by the UN in the Palestine Partition resolution, "the West Bank." All this may not be as clear as 123, but it IS as clear as 2334.
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Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments". Daniel Pipes replies: As I wrote in my article, "In 1948, when Jews abandoned the term Palestine in favor of Israel, the word Palestinian became exclusively Arab." Reader comments (24) on this item
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