The Palestine Mandate & Private vs. Public Land

Submitted by Robert (United States), Jul 5, 2021 at 22:46

I am disappointed that in these articles of yours you (1) do not distinguish between Private & Public Land, (2) do not discuss the Bedouin Arabs of Israel who were Nomads and did not "settle" permanently on a piece of (fenced off) land, and (3) do not invoke the Palestine Mandate (1922) that arouse out of USA President Woodrow Wilson's "New World Order," and subsequent Internationalism of KARL MARX (... 1883), Vladimir Lenin and HENRY FORD (1920, "INTERNATIONAL JEW").

Here is an excerpt from said Mandate: "ART. 6. The Administration of Palestine, while ensuring that the rights and position of other sections of the population are not prejudiced, shall facilitate Jewish immigration under suitable conditions and shall encourage, in co-operation with the Jewish agency referred to in Article 4, close settlement by Jews on the land, including State lands and waste lands not required for public purposes."

There were 2 "International" movements at the turn of the 19th-20 century. The Communist one which first organized around the Communism of Karl Marx in the Form of the "(First) International." I will not discuss that here and the views of the subsequent Soviet Union and what it though of Property Rights. But the second Internationalist movement was formulated by Woodrow Wilson during WWI. Ironically, the USA, did not follow through on it when the rest of the world joined the LEAGUE OF NATIONS. Nevertheless, the USA adopted the 1922 provisions of the Mandate for Palestine.

Accordingly, the provisions of this Mandate had become "INTERNATIONAL LAW" (i.e, internationalism). The successor to this League, the UN, recognized, through its Article 80, that the mandates of the League were not revoked, and so the Palestine Mandate was recognized after WWII when the UN convened.

Another provision of the Palestine Mandate required that no abridgment of the religious or civil rights of the resident non-Jewish population be abridged (but conspicuously omitting the word "political") while asserting that the political rights of Jews outside of Palestine not be abridged by as a consequence of said mandate.

Accordingly, the only was that Jews could or can acquire land that was the Real Estate of an Arab was by buying it (a CIVIL PROCEDURE). But land which was not owned by anyone else - PUBLIC LAND - was to be disposed of POLITICALLY. In other words, any Public Land, was and remains in the discretion of Israel to dispose of through its laws, Ottoman, British, and Israeli. And this is the real place where Palestinians are wrong in their claim that Israel steals Palestinian Land. When an Israelis "settle" stakes out a claim for land in Palestine, it is always through a civil legal procedure against an Arab claiming that the Arab does not in fact have TITLE to the land where the Settle wants to reside or occupy.

The Best Authority I know of on this issue is in the works of EUGENE W. ROSTOW (1913-2002).

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