--sTs

Submitted by Devasahayam (United States), May 16, 2008 at 05:40

"Of course we know since longtime. Mohammad said 1500 years ago when he was greeting people from Palestine, they came to pay him a visit of support and endorsement and becoming Muslims".

So, how come NO Arab ever used the term "Palestine" until 1918 (other than that Arabic doesn't even have the sounds)? Indeed, not even the CONCEPT of "Palestine" even existed amongst Arabs till then.

'God in the Quran says that God will gather the Jews in Palestine before end of time so they will be destroyed"'

In your impaired imagination only--as the term "Palestine" doesn't exist in the Quran, a book which shows its error by the number of times it actually mentions Jerusalem (unless you do "letter algorithms") -- NIL!

'and we are told that they will be destroyed by Jesus once he descends down from heavens.'

Note that even Muslims admit that it is Jesus (not the brigand claiming prophet status Mohammed) who will descend--though they pervert it from there.

And if you talk of the Jews' evil deeds, how about those of Muslims (Operation Searchlight and current Darfur crisis are but two examples) just since WW2? By that logic, you Muslims should have been scrubbed in 1972.

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