The Qur'an is perfect? Really? How about surat al-rajm?

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Dec 5, 2008 at 07:23

I will address three examples from the book ... and they are:

1. How do you explain Q53:32 which is for sure not in sync with Surat al-nijm and even the Muslim Ulama back then and even now realize that this aya is problematic but no one has the courage to tell us that it is no more than Quranic corruption.

2. As I have wrote before: Are we to read the rasm MLK in sura al-fatiha as maaliki or the owner of (as is written in the Cairo edition of the Qur'an) or to read it as maliki or the king of (as is written in the Tunisian edition of the Qur'an) as Muhammad could not have heard it as both. Do you know what this very simple example means? It means that:

A, we really do not know what the Qur'an really says

B. The Qur'an was edited by the Ulama

3. Anyone that knows the barbaric shari3a law knows that it prescribes stoning for al-zani (fornicator) wa al-zania (foricatress). But if you read Q24:2 you will discover that the Qur'an prescribes jald or scourge and not rajm or stoning! How do you explain that?

Well enter the Ulama and we are told a funny and bizarre story about the fact that there was indeed a certain surat al-rajm or the stoning verse and it was written by a scribe on a palm leaf but this palm leaf was eaten be a hungry goat! Really? Et voila boys and girls this is the story of ayat al-rajm! And do you know what this means? It means that the book of Arabian ignorance is far from being perfect

How come you do not know that?

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".