The Race for Democracy

Submitted by M. Tovey (United States), Apr 14, 2011 at 17:57

So you would have to concede that any man that is an author of a book is subject to any perception which is contained that book; that in that subjectivity, the book will not have anything to offer that the reader/recipient is or is not willing to receive except subjectively?

The Holy Bible in its earlier forms was available in limited fashion in the time of the Islamic Prophet; that for his time, his perception was not to believe it by your perception, right? So the Quran was dictated as a potential replacement, right or wrong?

It is interesting that you appear to look at history for the secular implications of national identity, and yet appear to use the religious observations of a contravening sort to arrive at a conclusion that secular history cannot rightfully explain. The evidence that the Holy Bible is a man-made book is secular, so must the explanation be. But the Holy Bible is not secular, so what effect can a secular commentary have on its content? None.

The implication is made here by the previous post that the reborn nation of Israel was gained at the expense of an indigenous people by force, yet how conveniently do some forget the antagonisms happening in the decades prior. And if you concede that the Romans did evict the Jews from their homeland (a Biblically supported circumstance, by the way, for any Muslim who tries to make that argument stick in contradiction to claiming no belief in the Holy Bible), is there no appeal to effect a return allowed?

And if Jewish is not ethnically/race oriented, then the peoples who have subjected the Jewish people to harrassment for centuries just because of race have a lot of explaining to do.

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